The answer
David, through Divine inspiration calls our Lord Jesus Christ the Messiah "my Lord". The phrase "my Lord" refers to someone who is superior in rank to the writer, in this case King David. The psalm, therefore, cannot be referring to David himself, as if God (Yahweh) had said to him, "Sit at my right hand." Nor was there anyone on earth in the time of David to whom it could be applicable. Therefore, it must be referring to the Messiah (Christ), the one whom he considered his superior, his Lord, his Sovereign. It cannot refer to God (the Father) since God himself is the One "speaking" to Him whom David called his Lord: "The Lord said to my Lord." It is as if David, in the spirit of inspiration, is recording a conversation between two equals. The reasoning of the divine Savior, therefore, in (Mt 22:43-45), was founded on a fair and just interpretation of the psalm, and was so plain and conclusive that the Pharisees did not attempt to reply to it (Mt 22:46).Answered by His Eminence Metropolitan Youssef (opens in a new tab)