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Questions & Answers

Marriage

Faith Q&A › Metropolitan Youssef › Marriage and Family › Marriage

The question

I have a question on virginity and the church. If a woman is required to state whether she is a virgin or not before marriage, and a man is required to state whether he was previously married or not, why is it not required of a man to state his “virginal” status prior to marriage?

The answer

Marriage should be based on complete truth and honesty. Prior to marriage, a man should state his virginal status as much as a woman. As a man would feel betrayed if he discovered that his bride was not a virgin, the same is true for a woman who discovers later that her groom had such relationships that he had intentionally concealed from her. This can very well be a reason for annulment of marriage later on.

Answered by His Eminence Metropolitan Youssef (opens in a new tab)

Related questions

Questions answered by His Eminence Metropolitan Youssef (opens in a new tab) of the Coptic Orthodox Diocese of the Southern United States. Question 779 on the Diocese’s Q&A site. Questions and answers © Coptic Orthodox Diocese of the Southern United States. All rights reserved.